Re: OT: Spanish "me da feliz"

Since all this discussion has strayed so far from the question of the
phrase 'me da feliz', shouldn't it be given a new subject heading and
separate into another thread?
Concerning the original subject, has Steve's query been answered
adequately or not?
It has been established, I think, that the phrase is an idiom in use
in Baja California and along the Mexico - USA border, but not in South
America or Spain. What about other Spanish speaking areas or Spanish
dialects?
I am curious whether a 'rule' can be discerned for the development of
such 'incorrect' idioms.
Or maybe there is one, but I don't know it.
God bless you all always, all ways,
Paul

On Fri, May 9, 2008 at 8:04 PM, Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Fri, May 9, 2008 at 7:33 PM,  <li_sasxsek@...> wrote:
>> Only because the name was already thrown out there.  Not unlike
>> other OT strayings about beer, wine, or whether houses have
>> "bathrooms" or not.
>
> If you're really so thick that you can't see the difference, then
> maybe you should indeed just stay completely out of all those OT
> discussion threads. Just don't mind the rest of us, who can tell the
> difference, as we manage to go off-topic without going into flamewar
> territory. Yeesh.
>
> It's a pretty simple principle: where there are issues that people are
> divided by, and feel passionately about, don't talk about them.
> Nobody here is a *partisan* of "bathroom" vs "restroom".  People may
> prefer beer to wine, or vice versa, but nobody's going to *attack*
> anybody over their preference.
>
> Beyond that, calling *anyone* a "whore", no matter what motivates you
> to do so, is simply unacceptably rude, totally apart from any
> cross/crown/green star considerations.
>
>
> --
> Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>
>

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