Re: OT: Spanish "me da feliz"
From: | ROGER MILLS <rfmilly@...> |
Date: | Saturday, May 10, 2008, 5:09 |
Ph.D. wrote:
>Paul Schleitwiler wrote:
>>
>>Concerning the original subject, has Steve's query been answered
>>adequately or not? It has been established, I think, that the phrase is an
>>idiom in use in Baja California and along the Mexico - USA border, but not
>>in South America or Spain. What about other Spanish speaking areas or
>>Spanish
>>dialects?
>
>No, not in Baja California. I believe just in Texas and
>areas of Mexico near Texas.
>
It had struck me, as the thread went along, that perhaps this was something
unique to Hispanics (maybe just Mexicans?) in the US, but I don't see how it
could have been influenced by bilingualism ~English.