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Re: the Maligned Art

From:Joshua Shinavier <jshinavi@...>
Date:Monday, November 9, 1998, 11:18
> If I create a tool that looks like, is capable of acting like, has all the > properties of, a hammer, can one say that it is NOT a hammer until someone > actually uses it as such?
If "hammer" is a description of the form of an object, then it is a hammer regardless of whether it has ever been used. I you define a "hammer" as "an object with the form of a hammer which has been used to hammer" then of course hammer-ness is an acquired property. To me, however, this latter seems extremely artificial and would in fact be an illegal semantic definition in my own conlang; instead you would, using the verb "to hammer", indicate that the thing in question, during at least one past span of time, has been used as a hammer: HAMMER'yaret. To me a language is a language, a conceptual structure, regardless of its speakership, whether past, present, or future. A hammer is a hammer, regardless of what it is hamming, whether it is hamming, whether will ham or has ever hammed before :-) Josh Shinavier