Re: Yivrian /l/ (was Re: syllables)

On Fri, 13 Jun 2003 11:20:37 -0700 JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
writes:
> Steg said:
> > Could [l] in Old Yivrian have come from some less sonorous sound,
> > for instance, a lateralized [d], in Really Old Yivrian?
> What do you mean by a lateralized [d]? A [d] with a lateral release?
> That might be the best suggestion yet.
> Jesse S. Bangs jaspax@u.washington.edu
-

I guess so... i'm not sure exactly how it's articulated, but i was
thinking something parallel to the 'lateralized S' in Proto-Semitic that
is supposed to be the same as the Welsh |ll|.  I seem to remember that
one of the Arabic emphatics, maybe emphatic /d/, was also lateral, and
comes out as /ld/ in loans into Spanish. ('alcalde' possibly?)


-Stephen (Steg)
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