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Re: Graeca sine flexione

From:R A Brown <ray@...>
Date:Friday, May 4, 2007, 16:27
A couple of questions:

NAME
I've already commented on the name, but still don't know the answer.
Presumably "Graeca sine flexione" is in imitation of "Latino sine
flexione", but the latter is not (Classical) Latin, it is the language's
own name for itself. _Latino_ is derived according to the rules of LSF
(i.e. taking the ablative singular form) from the Classical Latin
'Latinum' = 'Latin language'. The LSF for "Greek without flexions" is
"Graeco sine flexione" (and CL would be something like 'Latinum sine
flexionibus reformatum' - since prepositional phrases may be used only
adverbially).

It's true we didn't spot this in the Feb. 2006 thread - (a) What
language is the name "Graeca sine flexione"? and (b) why doesn't GSF
actually name itself in its own language (just as LSF does)?

PERSONAL PRONOUNS
I note the nouns are mainly derived from the accusative case forms, but
the personal pronouns are clearly derived from _nominative_ forms. This
is in marked contrast to LSF where we find _me_ = I/me, and _te_ = you
[singular]. Also in AFAIK all English pidgins and creoles the 1st person
is derived from _me_, not from _I_. In particular I find the use of γο
to me "me" very odd.

Comments?

--
Ray
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