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Re: k(w)->p

From:Paul Bennett <paulnkathy@...>
Date:Thursday, January 27, 2000, 4:10
On 26 Jan 00, at 22:18, Raymond Brown wrote:

> At 11:13 am -0600 26/1/00, Matt Pearson wrote:
> >If /kp/ and /kw/ are consonant clusters, then the change from the > >former to the latter may not be that plausible (although /p/ -> /w/ > >is found in some languages). However, if /kp/ is a doubly-articulated > >stop and /kw/ is a labialised velar stop - i.e., if both are treated as > >single segments - then the change seems entirely plausible to me. > > And to me also. I don't see the difficulty. > > Clearly V.Latin 'quattro' (Classical: quattuor) _did_ become 'patru' in > Romanian, and 'lingua' did become 'limb@'. > > The theory of intermediate fricativation ( /kwattro/ -> */xwatro/ --> > */Watru/ */p\atru/ --> /patru/ and, presumably, /liNgwa/ --> */liNGwa/ --> > */linW@/ --> */limb\@/ --> /limb@/) is not merely unsupported by any > external evidence but is IMHO just too fantastical for words. The change > /k_w/ --> /p/ and /g_w/ --> /b/ is what the evidence suggests and I > personally see no problem.
Minor notational nitpick: (supposing for one moment that the theory holds water in the first place, IMO it does so fairly well) The stage you've got above as */linW@/ should surely be */limw@/ to retain both voicing and nasal-assimilation. On intermediate frication, I'd have to agree with you and say that the /x_w/ stage is neither attested nor neccessary, and I personally have doubts about the /p\/ stage as well, though I would have to double-check that one. I doubt that either form was present as anything very much more than an allophone of its 'chronological neighbours' rather than a phoneme in its own right.
> What is conventially written as /kw/ is not here /k/ + /w/ but, as Matt > says, a _labialized_ velar stop, a _single_ segment. Likewise Latin -gu- > (found only after -n-) was almost certainly a labialized voiced velar stop.
Absolutely, and in the chain of events I suggested... On 26 Jan 00, at 1:02, Paul Bennett wrote:
> > k_w -> x_w -> W -> p\ -> p >
All the steps _were_ single segments. Despite my defending my position on this, I made the above suggestion in the context of (IIRC) Ed and Nik (my apologies if I've named the wrong names) saying that they could conceive no plausible way in which /k_w/ could become /p/. I felt that (regardless of its actual attestation and provability, which I'm also ready to question [*]) this certainly was a plausible path, and there could be others. [*] 'ready to question' is not equal to 'currently questioning'