From: | Dan Sulani <dnsulani@...> |
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Date: | Sunday, May 14, 2000, 9:09 |
Hi all! I seem to be cut off from the List since Friday.(problems in the phone-system --- they're on strike and not fixing breakdowns. This, in turn, is affecting my ISP. :-P) Anyhow, I've twice tried to get this posting to the List. This time, I'll try from a web-based address. Maybe I can get out. I really _am_ interested in knowing the answer if any of you know of it. Anyhow, on Friday, 12 May, John Cowan wrote:>John Mietus scripsit: > >> How did it become {island}, anyway? > >Contamination from "isle". Despite appearances,"island and "isle">are not closely related. "Island" is native >English, "isle" is from Latin "insula" via OldFrench. Originally>the English word was simply "i"; when that gotconfusing, the>suffix "-land" was added for clarity, literally"island-land".>Then an unhistorical "s" was added to make "iland"look more like>"isle".I'm still confused( :-) ). Is "i" a maximal shorteneing of the Old French, while "isle" was a less drastic version, or did "i" derive from some other source, and if so, what? (Modern German has "Insel" for island --- from the same Old French source?) The reason I ask, is that the word for island in Hebrew is also "i" (spelled aleph-yod). My (Hebrew) dictionary says that ancient Egyptian (Hamitic, not Semitic) had "Iw" (or something like "aleph-vav" and that ancient Phonecian (Semitic) also had something like "aleph-yod". That English also had "i" for island is probably a coincidence and not a borrowing from the Mediterranean world. (No?) (BTW, what was the Proto-IE for "island"?) Thanks. Dan Sulani ===== likehsna rtem zuv tikuhnuh auag inuvuz vaka'a. A word is an awesome thing. __________________________________________________ Do You Yahoo!? Send instant messages & get email alerts with Yahoo! Messenger. http://im.yahoo.com/