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From:Dan Sulani <dnsulani@...>
Date:Sunday, May 14, 2000, 9:09
Hi all! I seem to be cut off from the List since
Friday.(problems in the phone-system --- they're on
strike and not fixing breakdowns. This, in turn, is
affecting my ISP. :-P) Anyhow, I've twice
tried to get this posting to the List. This time,
I'll try from a web-based address. Maybe I can get
out. I really _am_  interested in knowing the answer
if any of you know of it.

Anyhow, on Friday, 12 May, John Cowan wrote:

>John Mietus scripsit: > >> How did it become {island}, anyway? > >Contamination from "isle". Despite appearances,
"island and "isle"
>are not closely related. "Island" is native >English, "isle" is from Latin "insula" via Old
French. Originally
>the English word was simply "i"; when that got
confusing, the
>suffix "-land" was added for clarity, literally
>Then an unhistorical "s" was added to make "iland"
look more like
I'm still confused( :-) ). Is "i" a maximal shorteneing of the Old French, while "isle" was a less drastic version, or did "i" derive from some other source, and if so, what? (Modern German has "Insel" for island --- from the same Old French source?) The reason I ask, is that the word for island in Hebrew is also "i" (spelled aleph-yod). My (Hebrew) dictionary says that ancient Egyptian (Hamitic, not Semitic) had "Iw" (or something like "aleph-vav" and that ancient Phonecian (Semitic) also had something like "aleph-yod". That English also had "i" for island is probably a coincidence and not a borrowing from the Mediterranean world. (No?) (BTW, what was the Proto-IE for "island"?) Thanks. Dan Sulani ===== likehsna rtem zuv tikuhnuh auag inuvuz vaka'a. A word is an awesome thing. __________________________________________________ Do You Yahoo!? Send instant messages & get email alerts with Yahoo! Messenger.