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Sapir-Whorf Hypothesis (was Re: FLAMEBAIT: Re: Non-linear / full-2d writing systems?)

From:Jörg Rhiemeier <joerg_rhiemeier@...>
Date:Saturday, May 14, 2005, 16:02

On Sat, 14 May 2005 05:12:39 -0400,
"J. 'Mach' Wust" <j_mach_wust@...> wrote:

> On Fri, 13 May 2005 22:22:41 -0400, Paul Bennett <paul-bennett@...> wrote: > > >On Fri, 13 May 2005 22:00:36 -0400, Remi Villatel <maxilys@...> wrote: > > > >> I've always believed that a language influences your tought. Another > >> writing > >> system, in particular if it's as special as a 2dWS would be much like an > >> another language. Sapir-Worf and so on... > > > >Sapir-Worf could not possibly be true. If it were, we'd still be banging > >rocks together, if that.
I think there is so much evidence against the "Sapir-Whorf" hypothesis (which is actually Whorf's, not Sapir's), and so little in favour of it, that it can be considered disproven (and most linguists do so).
> Neither this nor that. I don't believe that there are fundamental > differences in thinking depending on different languages. But I do believe > that language has an influence on though. A Frenchman, for instance, would > be more prone to associate the concepts of "mother" and "sea" than an > Englishman, since they are homophonous in his language.
Not really. German has _Mutter_ for `mother' and _Mutter_ for `nut (of screw)' (but with different plurals) , and yet most Germans do not associate them closely, except perhaps in occasional puns. And I assume that the French association between _mère_ and _mer_ is by no means stronger. Greetings, Jörg.


Tim May <butsuri@...>