Re: THEORY: Mandarin vowel phonology
From: | John Cowan <cowan@...> |
Date: | Monday, October 11, 1999, 20:01 |
Danny Wier scripsit:
> Well, you have a problem if you ignore the final nasal, because it changes
> the vowel.
*waves hand airily* Mere surface phenomena.
> <i> after <j q x y> = [i]
> <in ing> = [In] [IN]
> <i> after <z c s> = [i-] (centralized i)
> <i> after <zh ch sh> = [@`] (vocalic retroflex continuant)
It's only the last case that's tricky for my analysis, and I have
to consider it separate. There's good backing for this:
Gwoyeu Romatzyh uses "y" in precisely these cases, but "i" elsewhere,
allowing the abandonment of the j-q-x vs. zh-ch-sh series.
> (*ri is romanized <er>)
I think "ri" and "er" are different syllables, in fact.
--
John Cowan cowan@ccil.org
I am a member of a civilization. --David Brin