Re: /p/ versus devoiced b?
From: | H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...> |
Date: | Sunday, January 28, 2001, 2:34 |
On Sat, Jan 27, 2001 at 08:44:45PM -0500, D Tse wrote:
> Why is it that /p/ and devoiced /b/ sound slightly different? I recall
> reading somewhere that it has something to do with fortis and lenis
> voiceless (or I could be mistaken?)
[snip]
Could it be that you're talking about a non-aspirate /p/ and an aspirate
/p/? For example, in English, the first p in "paper" is aspirate, the
second isn't, and is equivalent to a devoiced /b/. An aspirate /p/ is
[p<h>] (Kirsch), a non-aspirate /p/ is [p].
T
--
INTEL = Only half of "intelligence".