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Re: zeta, ksi etc (was: THEORY Ideal system of writing)

From:Muke Tever <hotblack@...>
Date:Friday, August 13, 2004, 16:36
On Fri, 13 Aug 2004 07:34:54 -0500, Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
wrote:
>> > Also the Greek Zeta, according to one textbook - /dz/ >> >> No - 'tis the Semitic 'zai' (Hebrew 'zayin'). /dz/ is an widespread >> convention in reading ancient Greek. The evidence, however, is that it >> varied in the different dialects between [dd] ~ [zd] ~ [zz], with the >> latter becoming the norm in the Hellenistic period. > > I believe we've discussed this before in the years we've both > been on the list, but what about <Zeus>, whose <z> comes from a > palatalized PIE */dy/ in *dyeus? This is not to deny the other > pronunciations were licit in various dialects, but it seems hard > not to admit this pronunciation at, at least, a very early, > perhaps prehistoric, period.
<< From the purely phonetic point of view, [...] the most straightforward reflex of [dy] and [gy] would have been something like [dž] or [dz], and such a pronunciation must in fact have been current in some parts; it was with this value that the letter (I) was carried to Italy, where it was used to represent [ts], for example Osc. húrz [horts] 'garden' < *xortos. A development of stop + sibilant to sibilant + stop is not unprecedented: in several Slavic languages for example the presence vs. absence of such a metathesis is a distinguishing trait of dialect groups. >> --Sihler, _New Comparative Grammar of Greek and Latin_, §201 (The (I) there should be the I-shaped zeta glyph.) *Muke! -- http://frath.net/ (my website) http://kohath.livejournal.com/ http://kohath.deviantart.com/ http://wiki.frath.net/ (conlangs and concultures)

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Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>