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Re: "can" "able to" mood

From:Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>
Date:Saturday, December 29, 2007, 14:46
Quoting "J. 'Mach' Wust" <j_mach_wust@...>:

> On Mon, 17 Dec 2007 14:08:23 +0100, Andreas Johansson <andjo@...> wrote: > > >Quoting "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...>: > > > >> I think the difference is syntactic rather than semantic. In English > >> et sim, you construct it with helper verb + inf, so it's clearly not a > >> mood. But logically, the function seems more moodlike than aspectual, > >> so I see no reason why it couldn't be a mood in some other lang... > > > >I don't see why analytic construction would exclude moodhood? > > I'd say it's similar to the distinction between aspect and aktionsart: All > languages will have means > of expressing aktionsart, but not all languages have a morpho-syntactic > category of aspect. > Likewise, all languages will have means of expressing "semantic moodhood", > but not all > languages will have a morpho-syntactic category of mood.
One is tempted to say that the auxiliary+infinitive construction IS such a morpho-syntactic category of mood, particularly as the English grammar I was taught systematically ignored the subjunctive and never called the imperative a mood - before I started to self-study linguistics I never heard of "mood" but with reference to this construction. But I get your point. Andreas