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Re: Questions about "ðat strange orþography"

From:Peter Bleackley <peter.bleackley@...>
Date:Tuesday, April 13, 2004, 9:04
Staving Carsten Becker:
>From: "Peter Bleackley" <Peter.Bleackley@...> >Sent: Thursday, February 05, 2004 2:13 PM >Subject: Ðe construct case hisparadox > > > > Meþinks a paradox ariseþ in ðe construct case hisuse, [...] > >Now, it's clear to me what those þ's and ð's are standing for (/T/ and >/D/ of course), that <hw> is for <wh>, <-þ> is for <-s> and "meþinks" >means "I think", but what does "hisuse" mean? Is the "his" for marking >the genitive of the previous noun, like <-'s>? And why did you do that >instead of writing normal, plain English? Has it simply something to do >with some >what-if-English-spelling-would-not-have-been-messed-up-by-the-Normans >project you were working on at this time? Don't get me wrong, I'm just >asking naïvely and curiously.
I was, at the time, playing about with some features I like from older forms of English, under the name of "Englisc as it might oðerwise be". It had a construct case (possession marked on the possessed, as found in Semitic languages), marked by a prefix "his-". This usage is attested even in Early Modern English, eg from "Twelfth Night" Once in a sea-fight against the Count his galleys At the time a few people on the list were experimenting with alternative Englishes, so I thought I'd give it a go. After a few weeks, however, I found typing it too laborious. Pete