Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?

Nik Taylor sikayal:

> > Of course, there's also the old cliché " A good time was had by
all".
>
> Right. But this would be a different, homonymous HAVE: cf. *"everyone
> with a good time" = "everyone who has/had a good time".
Woah.  I don't think you could justify positing two different,
homophonous verbs 'have' in English, and I don't follow what you're
trying to say here.  How is this different from regular "have"?

Jesse Bangs

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