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Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?

From:Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
Date:Sunday, February 25, 2001, 17:41
And Rosta <a.rosta@...> writes:

> Actually, "I have a dog" = "I am with a dog", not "A dog is with me". > > > Would you care to say what arguments? It sounds interesting ... > > In brief, the relevant subtypes of HAVE and WITH have the same > semantics, the same relatively unusual complementation > > the man with his hands in his pockets > the man has his hands in his pockets
Urgl. I don't have `with' yet. But now I might introduce both at the same time. :-)) I think this is a really good way of doing it in my language, since I have to express `with' by using verbs. And `with' and `to have' really look a perfect pair to be unified. To see how it works for other things, look at `with' in instrumental meaning, which is expressed like using `to use'. With that verb, assignment of agentive case is easy: It would work like this: I eat meal use chop-sticks. [I.AGT mean.PAT].AGT chop-sticks.PAT Note that this is no SVC (serial verb construction) as it would be in Mandarin (wo yong kuaizi chi fan). It literally translates to `my meal-eating uses chop-sticks' or `I, (who is) using chop-sticks, eat a meal' (These cannot be distinguished without using additional particles). How would you assign cases for `with'? with: agent=experiencer? This would be the way I do it with `to love'. Would you say that `with' has the same structure as `to love'? Would be like: I with money. I.AGT money.PAT I have money. I love money. I.AGT money.PAT I love money. From my point of view, this looks feasible. **Henrik