Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Friday, March 2, 2001, 5:41 |
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And Rosta wrote:
> > "A dog is had by me" doesn't sound that bad.
>
> Extraordinary. So how does "all dogs had by me" compare to "all dogs
> owned by me"?
Mind you, I'm not saying I'd ever say "A dog is had by me", but it
doesn't sound much worse than "A dog is seen by me". Both are quite
awkward.
However, now that I think about it, if you take away the issue of the
pronoun "me", then it does still sound odd. "The dog was had by John"
sounds awkward, but "The dog was seen by John" doesn't, in the proper
context.
At any rate, "A dog is had by me" doesn't sound anywhere near as bad as
"A dog is been with me", which is completely senseless.
--
Cenedl heb iaith, cenedl heb galon
A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb
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AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42
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