Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?

And Rosta wrote:
> The "have" = "be with" equation seems a neat explanation and might
> also serve to explain such things as *"a dog is had by me" (because
> = *"a dog is been with by me", which is predictably ill-formed).
"A dog is had by me" doesn't sound that bad.  Of course, there's also
the old cliché " A good time was had by all".

Uatakassí uses a case for "with".  I never thought of "with" for
"have".  Currently, for "I have a dog" it would be:

Launílki   táluaz ki[dog]
It.is(loc) me-dat dog

But maybe
Launílki   táluan ki[dog]
It.is(loc) me-com dog

Would also work.  Something to think about.  Or perhaps both could exist
with some sort of difference in meaning?

--
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A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb
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