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Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?

From:And Rosta <a.rosta@...>
Date:Friday, March 2, 2001, 16:53
Nik:
> At any rate, "A dog is had by me" doesn't sound anywhere near as bad as > "A dog is been with me", which is completely senseless.
That should be "A dog is been with by me". *"No dog may be had by convicted felons." = *"No dog may be been with by convicted felons." Matt:
> "A dog is had by me" sounds grammatical to me--but only under an > unintended (and, in this context, rather dirty) reading of "have".
I agree. And note that "the man with a dog" cannot mean "the man who has/had sexual congress with a dog". Therefore this is a different homonymous HAVE, perhaps related to HAVE 'enjoy' in Nik's earlier "a good time was had by all". --And.

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John Cowan <jcowan@...>