Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, March 3, 2001, 22:03 |
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Jesse Bangs wrote:
> Woah. I don't think you could justify positing two different,
> homophonous verbs 'have' in English, and I don't follow what you're
> trying to say here. How is this different from regular "have"?
I agree. They don't seem to be different verbs to me. I'd consider "A
good time was had by all" to be simply an idiomatic expression. Like
"For the life of me". Is that "of" merely a "homophone" of "of"? After
all, one wouldn't normally say "of me" in place of "my".
--
Cenedl heb iaith, cenedl heb galon
A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb
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