Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?
| From: | Frank George Valoczy <valoczy@...> |
| Date: | Friday, March 2, 2001, 18:54 |
> Nik Taylor wrote:
>
> > And Rosta wrote:
> > > > "A dog is had by me" doesn't sound that bad.
> > >
> > > Extraordinary. So how does "all dogs had by me" compare to "all dogs
> > > owned by me"?
> >
> > Mind you, I'm not saying I'd ever say "A dog is had by me", but it
> > doesn't sound much worse than "A dog is seen by me". Both are quite
> > awkward.
>
> "A dog is had by me" sounds grammatical to me--but only under an unintended
> (and, in this context, rather dirty) reading of "have".
>
> Matt.
>
I'll admit too, that was my first thought...I can say it now I just didn't
want to be the one who brought it up ;)
-------ferko
Ferenc Gy. Valoczy
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