Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?

Hi!

Considering various possibilities in my new conlang, the lack of case
marking, etc., and the verbs that already exist in my language, I
decided to use the locative verb:

   book be-at I.
   AGT        PAT

But it may be logical to not speak of place, but of time:

   book happen-when I.
   AGT              PAT

I'm not sure about this yet, but it's funny.

In other languages, is `to get' then rendered with allative and `to
lose' (or something similar) with ablative case?

**Henrik

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