Re: Translation pattern of `to have'?
| From: | Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, February 22, 2001, 0:10 |
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En réponse à Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>:
>
> I'd like to know what concepts there are in general. The language I
> am currently constructing is isolating, has no copula, is very
> regular, is All-Nouns and has active case marking. Is there a typical
> way for such a language to render `to have'?
>
I don't know, but another typical way of rendering "I have" is "to/at me is"
which works as well with IE languages (Latin used esse+dative to render "to
have") as with non-IE languages (Arabic does it that way, with nominal
sentences in the present, so "I have a book"="to me a book").
Christophe.
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