Re: THEORY: Ray on ambisyllabicity

And Rosta wrote, quoting myself and respectively humself:

> > > I say ['hOU5li] for _wholly_ (and ['hOUli] for _holy_, but that's
> > > the Australian in my accent)
> >
> > I think I say /hOuli/ for _wholly_ and /hoUli/ for _holy_, noting that
> > /o/ is not [o].
>
> But you're Australian, aren't you?
Your reference to the Australian in your accent is precisely what
prompted my reply.

> Some Australians seem not to ever have special allophones of the GO and
> TOO vowels before /l/, while others, such as yours and my mother's and
> hence mine have the allophone always before /l/.
Not sure what this refers to.

Of course, one of the key differences between Eastern dialects and the
rest is that for non-easterners like me, there's a phonetic constraint
that no syllable can end in [Ul]. In the East, no such constraint exists.

> Because we don't have the holy/wholly vowel contrast, we are not
> germane to the debate... (I recall that we have previously found
> ourselves to have other Oz-related eccentricities in common.)
Remind me, which vowel contrast was this? The two words certainly have
different vowels!

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