Re: CHAT: Ability of Americans & Europeans to locate each others cities (was Re: The [+foreign] attribute)
| From: | Tristan <kesuari@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, September 22, 2002, 8:58 |
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On Sunday 22 September 2002 17:11, BP Jonsson wrote:
> At 15:00 2002-09-20 +0100, bnathyuw wrote:
>
> [Europeans hearing of Illinois]
>
> >and if they had, they'd call it /IlI'nwa/
>
> Only if all Eoropeans were French, which FBOW is not the case.
> A quick check with my stepson gave ["il:i%nOz\s]! :-)
>
> For the record I've known about Chicago [s\i"kQ:go] all my life, since my
> grandparents used to live there, but I learned of Illinois only when I saw
> "Blues Brothers"!
Which makes me wonder... I normally pronounce Las Vegas as /%lOs "v&ig@s/,
eqiv. to RP /%lQs "veig@s/. Is there any reason for this (rather than /las/
or /la:s/ from the spelling), except that it's a borrowing from American
based on pronunciation, not spelling (Am. /A:/ normally is equiv. to Oz /O/;
e.g. /stA:p/ vs /stOp/)? ('Dude' fits into that category as well, being
/du:d/ and not */dZu:d/.)
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