Re: does my lang cover everything?

I agree with Henrik's last post.  How horrible!  These test sentences are
obviously based on western samples.  What about a synaesthetic language?  I
smelled the bird's singing.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Henrik Theiling" <theiling@...>

>> http://talideon.com/concultures/wiki/?doc=TestSentences
>>...
>>[82] I heard the bird singing.
>>...
>
> Ages ago, I learned in school that it would rather have to be 'I heard
> the bird sing' instead.
One can say "I heard the bird singing" in English.  No prob.  I guess the
point is to make you translate this structure into your own language.  The
singing of the bird I heard.  Heard I the song of the bird.  My perception
bird process past tense sing.  Smell past-I bird's songbreath.  I beaked
with song perception from feathered reptile.

  The rule was that after verbs of perception,
> the infinitive is used instead of the gerund.  However, I often see
> this rule violated by L1 speakers.  How do you judge the correctness?
I guess you accept both as equally valid, given that any one language has
many rules and speakers, not just one rule and an elite few, although that
has been a perception for millennia, and has defined "true language" for
millennia--as though accepted dialects and variations are invalid.  That
should go for my Teonaht, as well.  And for any conlang.

I suppose, though, that it's crucial when you are speaking a foreign
language that you know what defines an accepted variation and what is
downright stupid-sounding. :)  Will someone correct my German writing for
me?  :) :)
Sally