Re: Person marking on nouns?

--- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Estel Telcontar <estel_telcontar@Y...>
wrote:

> First person marking on a noun woud be used wen a noun refers to the
> speaker - for example, in translations ov the expression in the Old
> Testament where one refers ta oneself as "your servant" when addressing
> a superior, such az God or the king.  Thus, in the instance where the
> boy Samuel sez ta God in one ov the first chapterz of 2 Samuel "Speak,
> for your servant is listening":  here, a translation in this language
> woud have (your) servant markt with first person marking, indicating
> that wen Samuel sed "your servant", he was refering ta himself.
If you have verb inflections, you can use those rather than noun
affixes:  "Speak, for your servant am listening."  My conlang
Obrenje does that, especially for expressing grammatical number,
to which verb inflections are insensitive:

|Lonnaze.| {sing:1}  "I sing" or "We sing".
|Lonnaze nae.| {sing:1 all}  "We all sing."
|Lonnaze cene.| {sing:1 the:single}  "I alone sing."  (That sounds a
    tad strange in English, but it's not quite the same as "I sing
    alone".)

Does anyone know whether this is legal in Latin?  |Loquere, nam
servus tuus audio|?

If you want to be able to use this for other roles than the
subject, there's the option to use appositions:  "Speak, for
I your servant am / your servant I is listening."

At least that oughta be possible in Latin: |Loquere, nam ego
servus tuus audio|...



-- Christian Thalmann


PS: Wots up wif da Gangsta orthografy?  Makes it kinda hard
    ta take u serious, u no.

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