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The Shift of Antecedent Prepositions to Suffixes ????

From:Nicolas Walker <bitemeagain_walker@...>
Date:Saturday, January 22, 2005, 12:39
Dear All,

A question for the assembled knowledg of the list (of which I am
constantly in awe!).

Is it all possible that a preposition may (with time) affix iself to the
END of the word it acts upon, even if its former position was at its head?
E.g. could 'or (loc.prep.) mar (=house)' become 'maror'? If so, is such a
change likely? Surely 'ormar' is infinately more probable!

A small follow uo question: can anybody furnish me with some examples of
languages (preferably natural)in which prepositions do indeed follow the
noun ?

Please advise.




Shaul Vardi <vardi@...>
Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>