Re: 3rd person reflexive(s) (was Re: Greenberg's Word Order Universals
|From:||Jonathan Chang <zhang2323@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, September 14, 2000, 22:56|
In a message dated 2000:09:14 3:46:55 PM, smithma@UCLA.EDU quotes me then
>> makee pidjin/Neu Spelin Inglis esampul:
>> Hi bin talk hi in rigard hihi plenti graed.
>> (in this example, _hihi_ refers to the 2nd male person in the sentence)
>Is that a requirement, or could it also have refered to the first male
>person? Just curious.
Yepyep. In order to refer to the 1st male the sentence would simply read:
Hi bin talk hi in rigard hi plenti graed.
It makes a sorta logical sense in a language that uses reduplication and
word order syntax structuring.
"It would be ironic if the answer to Babel
were pidgin and not Pentecost."
- George Steiner, _After Babel:
Aspects of Language & Translation_