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Re: How many verbs?

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Sunday, July 18, 2004, 19:38
On Saturday, July 17, 2004, at 08:29 , Philippe Caquant wrote:

[snip]
>> But then, what did Larry Trask know about >> linguistics? >> > I was referring to the permanent confusion between the > syntactical notion of "verb", and the semantics of > that so-called "verb".
This is not what you said. Let me remind you what you did write on 16th July: << What is a verb ? Nothing. A verb in English, or in Russian, or in Georgian, might be something, but such a thing as "a verb" (or: "an adverb" ) simply does not exist.) >> As far as I understand this, you are saying that, while in the analysis of an individual language like English, Russian or Georgian, there might be, but not necessarily is, a class of words called 'verbs', nevertheless the abstract concept 'verb' has no existence. I asked you what your evidence is that "such a thing as 'a verb' simply does not exist"? It seems a reasonable question.
> It is nearly impossible to > define a verb otherwise than syntactically, and yet, > in every grammar, you will find explanations like > "verb is used to express action, or state, or changing > of state", mixed up with syntactical notions,
Strange - I've just consulted three grammars at random - one on Welsh, another on Xhosa and the third on Czech - and none of them give any such explanations. I guess you mean "In every grammar I have read". Maybe you need to read some more enlightened grammars.
> and this > simply doesn't work. As other list addicts already > pointed out many times, a verb in language A doesn't > have to be a verb in language B.
Yes, the set of actual verbs in one language will not coincide with the set of verbs in another. One important case is of descriptive adjectives which, in some languages, are stative verbs. But it is singularly odd that we can recognize them as verbs if the concept 'verb' has no existence.
> To me, the notion of > "verb" is uninteresting except for purely syntactic > purposes.
So in terms of syntax 'verb' does have a meaning? So what am I to understand by: "but such a thing as 'a verb' ..... simply does not exist."? But this is, surely, a very narrow outlook. More often than not, verbs have interesting morphologies; and some us - *shudder* - even find them interesting from semantic point of view.
> What is interesting is the semantic relation > defined between two concepts.
I refer again to Trask's definition: "Grammatically speaking, verbs are most obviously distinguished by the fact that each verb typically requires the presence in its sentence of a specific set of NP [noun phrase] arguments, each of which typically represents some particular semantic role and each of which may be required to appear in some particular grammatical form (particular case marking, particular preposition etc.)." Consider carefully: "..each verb typically _requires_ the presence in its sentence of a specific set of noun phrase arguments, each of which typically represents some particular *semantic* role...." Isn't this to do with semantic relations between concepts? Our troublesome verbs often involve more than just two concepts, but that's the problem with real life. What did Larry Trask's "Dictionary of Grammatical terms in Linguistics" say about semantic? "*semantics* /sI'm&mtIks/ n. The branch of linguistics dealing with the meanings of words and sentences. The relation between syntax and semantics and the location of the dividing line between them have long been matters of controversy. Several extreme positions have been maintained. One, associated with Generative Semantics, holds that syntax and semantics are not distinct at all, but constitute a unified area of investigation. Another, associated with the Standard Theory of TG [Transformational Grammar], holds that the two are sharply distinct, with syntactic structures being primary and the semantics serving only to interpret syntactic structures. A third, arguably represented by some versions of functional grammar and of cognitive grammar, is that the two are distinct but that the syntax serves only to realize underlying semantic structures. Most linguists today would probably advocate some kind of intermediate position in which the two areas are distinct and make independent requirements but in which the dividing line is somewhat blurred and each area can have effects upon the other." I fall into the category of "most linguists today.....". But your position seems even more extreme that Trask's "A third, arguably represented....."; not only do you clearly draw a hard & fast distinction between semantics and syntax and also quite clearly put primary importance on semantics, but you appear almost to regard syntax as of little or no relevance. I, on the other hand, while admitting that semantics and syntax are different areas, find the dividing line between them somewhat blurred and consider that the one affects the other.
> Oh, I nearly forgot to add: IMO.
I assume they're your opinions. What I ask is on what evidence you base your opinions. You hold, presumably, that it is possible to discuss the 'semantic relation defined by two concepts' without any reference to syntax. I do not understand how this is possible. I am seeking enlightenment. You maintain that 'verb' has no meaning as an abstract concept. Could you explain to me why you consider Trask's definition, which I quoted above, is invalid? Language, surely, exists to mediate between externalizable events (sounds, among other things) and non-externalizable events (thoughts). Language does this by providing a loosely hierarchical collection of signs, each of which, generally speaking, mediates between sound (the sign's form) and thought (the sign's meaning). Part of this hierarchy is provided by syntax. You can, of course, have sounds without thoughts (animals & small children are good at this!) and thoughts without sounds, but you cannot have meaning without form nor form without meaning. Unless your thoughts are given external form (typically, in sound or writing) they have no meaning. Language provides a hierachy of levels ultimately represent just such a loosely hierarchical collection of signs. Until the sound bits are associated with the thought bits, it's not language. Semantics, syntax, morphology, phonology are all, IMO, important and inter-related. You appear to dismiss everything except semantics. Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com (home) raymond.brown@kingston-college.ac.uk (work) =============================================== "A mind which thinks at its own expense will always interfere with language." J.G. Hamann, 1760

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Philippe Caquant <herodote92@...>