Re: non-accusative, non-ergative, non-active ...
From: | David Peterson <digitalscream@...> |
Date: | Friday, March 8, 2002, 20:59 |
In a message dated 03/8/02 12:33:05 PM, christophe.grandsire@FREE.FR writes:
<< If I had a language with no case affices, where word order in sentences
> with
> a transitive verb is SOV and in ones with an intransitive SV, could
> that
> language be meaningfully be classified as accusative, ergative, active
> or as
> not any of those three? >>
Based on this information alone, I think if it were going to be
classified as something, it'd be the accusative, since the S is always in
first position, suggesting that maybe semantically it doesn't change. Also,
the O in the SOV and whatnot doesn't just refer to direct objects. What
about prepositional phrases? For instance, what would be the order of "He's
crying in the den"? Would it be "He in the den is crying"? If so, then that
would really suggest it's accusative, since the subject would remain ahead of
both O clauses.
-David
"Zi hiwejnat zodZaraDatsi pat Zi mirejsat dZaCajani sUlo."
"The future's uncertain and the end is always near."
--Jim Morrison