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Re: Adunaic case system

From:Patrick Littell <puchitao@...>
Date:Saturday, March 19, 2005, 4:12
> I don't think I've run across anything quite like the subjective and > objective cases elsewhere. (They're not much like nominative and accusative.) Are > there natural language precedents?
It's very unusual, although not impossible, for the subject to be less marked than the object. (Presuming, of course, that when Tolkien says the "subject of a verb" he means both transitive and intransitive ones.) It violates Greenberg's universal #38: "when there is a case system, the only case which ever has only zero allomorphs is the one which includes among its meanings that of the subject of the intransitive verb." Roughly, the nominative will be less marked than the accusative, and the absolutive less marked than the ergative. Having Subjective (which is presumably the case for the subjects of intransitive verbs, at least not-fully inflected ones) more marked than Normal (for ordinary, non-incorporated objects) is thus a violation. But #38 is violable; there a (very) few natlang counterexamples to it so it's not really a "universal" so much as a very strong tendency. (I think the Mojave languages mark nominative with -ch and accusative with -0.) As for your main question, it seems basically nominative-accusitive, with Nominative = Subjective, Accusative = Normal, and Genitive = Objective. My reasons for this: -- Subjective is used for the subjects of both intransitive and transitive verbs. (I figure if they were treated differently, Tolkien would have mentioned it.) That's really all there is to Nominative. -- Normal being used for direct objects (that are not part of a compound expression.) I'd call this accusative with little hesitation. The features that make it look unlike an ordinary N/A language are: -- The subject being more marked than the object -- Nominative case-marking being optional when the identity of the subject is clear from verb-agreement. -- Genitive case being used for object incorporation. (I would treat (i) -- the object coming right before the verb, getting a different case than usual, and being treated as a compound expression -- as object incorporation.) At least, this would be my analysis, given the information provided above. I must admit some confusion over which cases would be used in which situations. It seems like he's saying that possessive genitives get Normal and non-possessive genitives get Objective? And in the plural, which case takes over the Objective's function? I would figure Normal. (That, iirc, is how things are distributed in Modern Standard Arabic: in the plural, there's a syncretism of accusative and genitive usually called the "oblique".) Given some further examples I figure we could puzzle out a better analysis. The folks on the ELFLING list might be of further help, too. Good luck. -- Patrick Littell Voice Mail: ext 744 Spring 05 Office Hours: M 3:00-6:00

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Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>