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Re: my phonology

From:Henrik Theiling <theiling@...>
Date:Friday, January 7, 2005, 15:51
Hi!

"J. 'Mach' Wust" <j_mach_wust@...> writes:
>... > >Hehe. But in English, the /T/-/s/-/S/ contrast also occurs in a > >crowded area of the mouth. As Basque's /s_a/-/s_m/-/S/. > > It's normal that languages distinguish many tip of the tonge points of > articulation (especially in fricatives), but it's unusual that there are > more than two back of the tongue points of articulation.
Ok.
> >I think /C/ > >is so much different from /x/ that a contrast would be feasible. > > You might be cheated by your German ears. I believe that German /x/ often > tends to be [X]. At least I think I can observe that I pronounce my German > /x/ further back in the mouth than my German /k/.
I don't use [x] in German at all. It's plain [X] for me. So I don't think I'm cheated by German ears here: [x] is foreign to me -- it is not a realisation of German /x/ phoneme for me -- and is clearly different from [C], which rings the typical 'palatal' bell that [x] does not ring. It might ring the Russian accent bell, however. :-)
> I have a very hard time to pronounce Spanish the voiced velar > fricative [G] correctly since my German mouth prefers to pronounce a > voiced uvular fricative [R].
Well, I could do it, although the Spanish sound was foreign to me. I did not mix it up with any of my German phonemes. **Henrik