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Re: Phaleran: the Webpage.

From:Boudewijn Rempt <bsarempt@...>
Date:Saturday, June 12, 1999, 18:20
On Fri, 11 Jun 1999, FFlores wrote:

> > I've also seen <ch> and <chh> in Sanskrit transliteration. > I don't see a reason why <ch> couldn't be /tS/, so that'd > be another example. Anybody knows? >
In Sanskrit, and in Nepali, they really are stops - I wouldn't know about Hindi and other related languages. There's a very natural tendency on the part of people with a Germanic or Latin language to pronounce /c/ and /j/ as affricates - but that's not always correct, as I had to learn when learning Nepali. (_ch_ and _chh_ are just old-fashioned transcription for _c_ and _ch_) This confusion means that very few accounts can be really trusted, and it is not uncommon to see centro-palatal consonants in one language be described as a stop by one researcher, and as an affricate by another. And, as Boyd Michaelovsky (La Langue Hayu) has said, the analysis is often dependent on the state of the informant's dentistry! I wouldn't know about Tibetan - it's completely unrelated to Indo-European, being a Sino-Tibetan language (or, since that's an extinct proto-language, a Tibeto-Burman language), and while the current pronounciation can often be derived from the script, I've never seen a really thorough description of the phonology of any Tibetan language, and for the Tibeto-Burman language I have descriptions of (Yamphu, Limbu, Hayu and others) my remark above about dentistry holds. My Tibetan teacher was already satisfied if we'd pronouns everything about right, no matter the tones. He was more interested in the grammar, and whether we got the meaning of the little ditties of the seventh Dalai Lama! Boudewijn Rempt | http://www.xs4all.nl/~bsarempt