Re: Hebrew vs. Ivrit - Eh?? (was: Re: Betreft: Re: Steg's wonderful .sig (and a question))
|From:||Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...>|
|Date:||Monday, November 8, 1999, 15:25|
On Sun, 7 Nov 1999 00:18:51 EST Josh Roth <Fuscian@...> writes:
> >What did they mean by that?
> Isn't Hebrew sometimes used to refer exclusively to Ancient Hebrew
> and Ivrit
> to Modern?
I've never heard of that....and it would only work in English (or other
non-Hebrew languages). In Hebrew, they're just Ivrit. You can be
specific, and say Ivrit haMiqra (Biblical), Ivrit shel Hhazal (Rabbinic
period), Ivrit shel Yemei-haBeinayim (Medieval), or Ivrit Modernit
(Modern). But "ivrit" is just plain "hebrew", as i've always seen it
used in other languages also.
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