Re: Slovanik, Enamyn, and Slavic slaves

On Friday 02 August 2002 16:07, Thomas R. Wier wrote:
> As I tried to explain in my last post, the Romans always used
> whatever was most convenient to rule subdued populations.  In
> the East, this meant Greek, and they had no hesitation in doing
> so.  The point of this debate, it should be recalled, was whether
> the Slavs were ever near or in Roman territory, and my argument
> has been that the Byzantines were fundamentally a continuation of
> ancient patterns of government as established by the Romans in
> the immediately preceding centuries.
        No, the point of this debate was to determine the probability of a
Slavic-Romance language. It just got off on the wrong foot by my incorrect
association of the Roman Empire with Latin-speaking Rome proper. Yes, the
Slavs were close to Roman territory, as you effectively pointed out. No, they
were not close to *Latin*-speaking Roman territory, as I pointed out. We are
violently agreeing. :)
        :Peter

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