Re: P versus Q Celtic
|From:||Ben Poplawski <thebassplayer@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, September 26, 2004, 6:05|
On Sat, 25 Sep 2004 20:35:11 -0700, bob thornton <arcanesock@...> wrote:
>What is the difference between P and Q Celtic languages? Did one groupundergo different sound changes? Different grammatical changes? A
combination of the two?
There might be (and probably are) other differences, but the P vs. Q
reference concerns the descent of the PIE labiovelar. You have in Latin
kw-->qu, Germanic kw-->hw, but Celtic languages took one of two approaches.
Some did kw-->q (still a labiovelar, for similar use see Tolkien's "Qenya
Lexicon") while others did kw-->p.
To bring up Tolkien again, Sindarin was to Quenya as P Celtic was to Latin.
Contrast 'quette(?)' and 'peth' "word", for example.