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Re: A question on palatalization.

From:Danny Wier <dawier@...>
Date:Wednesday, January 1, 2003, 20:38
From: "Christophe Grandsire" <christophe.grandsire@...>

> On the same example, if the > language doesn't have any postalveolar fricative ([S]), maybe [t_j] will
turn
> anyway into [c], despite the confusion resulting, because if it evolved
into
> the affricate [t_S], it would create a solitary postalveolar affricate
without
> a corresponding fricative, and as far as I know it's probably very rare > (languages don't seem to like to have orphans in their sound inventories.
But
> then again, that's just a tendency, like any language "universal").
Only language that I can think of that does have an "orphan" like that is Spanish, which has /tS/ but not /dZ/, /S/ or /Z/ (but /(d)Z/ shows up as an "emphatic" allophone of /j/ in Latin America). Tamil has (phonemically) only /tS/ for native words, with /S/ in borrowings from Sanskritic languages. ~Danny~

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michael poxon <m.poxon@...>