Re: A question on palatalization.
| From: | Doug Dee <amateurlinguist@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, January 1, 2003, 20:02 |
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In a message dated 1/1/2003 10:03:27 AM Eastern Standard Time,
dawier@HOTMAIL.COM writes:
> In a number of languages, such as Japanese, Irish Gaelic and my own Mierii,
> [i] causes palatalization in preceding vowels. Is the prevailing tendency
> for [i] to cause [t] and [d] to become [t_S] and [d_Z], or to [c] and [J]?
>
> [reply]
>
> It does just that in Japanese, yes.
I interpreted the question to mean "Which of these two is the prevailing
tendency, [t]/[d] > [t_S]/[d_Z] or [t]/[d] > [c]/[J] ?"
I don't know the answer.
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