Theiling Online    Sitemap    Conlang Mailing List HQ   

Re: derivational morphology

From:Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Date:Monday, October 1, 2001, 20:16
Quoting Patrick Dunn <tb0pwd1@...>:

> Anyone want to talk about derivational morphology? I'm trying to > figure out how other languages, nat and con, do it so I can find a way that's > aesthetically pleasing to me. I love the sound of Hawai'ian; > apparently reduplication is part of their derivational morphology. Anyone > know how that works? Or have interesting methods to elucidate, like Hebrew?
The line between derivational and inflectional morphology is not as hard and fast as it's often portrayed. Check out Laurie Bauer's _Introduction to Linguistic Morphology_ <http://www.amazon.com/exec/obidos/ASIN/0852245823/qid=1001965698/ sr=1-1/ref=sr_1_0_1/103-4681790-7004663> He/she (I don't know the sex of the author) makes a good case for not making a theoretical distinction between them at all, in fact. It's chapter 6, I think. One example of the difficulty can be seen in Phaleran. Take three constructions, the active, the passive, and the direct causative: Atherlu þasu šr|eswanti father.ERG food-ABS eat.TR.3SgPfRe.S "The father ate the food." Þasu g|arînto šr|ebronti. food-ABS son.INST eat.DETR.3SgPfRe.S "The food was eaten by the son." Atherlu g|arituo þasu šr|eþnunti father.ERG son.DAT food-ABS eat.CAUS.3SgPfRe.S "The father forced his son to eat the food" In each of these, the valence-marker is at some different point along a continuum between an ideal notion of inflectional affixes and an ideal notion of derivational affixes. The transitive marker is most inflectional: it has allomorphs according to phonological shape of the root and it actually disappears when used in a subordinate clause -- it is, in fact, almost entirely redundant, like personal marking is. The passive is somewhat less inflectional, as it changes the valence of the verb, but it doesn't occur in infinitival-type constructions (*_šr|ebro_), and the basic meaning is only narrowly changed. (Thus, to use a passive complement, you have to find some circumlocution.) The causative, on the other hand, is more like a derivational morpheme: it occurs in infinitival constructions (_šr|eþnu_ is licit), and changes more drastically the basic meaning of the verb. ============================== Thomas Wier <trwier@...> "If a man demands justice, not merely as an abstract concept, but in setting up the life of a society, and if he holds, further, that within that society (however defined) all men have equal rights, then the odds are that his views, sooner rather than later, are going to set something or someone on fire." Peter Green, in _From Alexander to Actium_, on Spartan king Cleomenes III