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Re: Triggeriness ...

From:Javier BF <uaxuctum@...>
Date:Friday, December 12, 2003, 14:10
>I think it is a mistake to try to correlate trigger languages with those >with "case". I see no evidence there is case (in the traditional sense). >The nouns are simply marked as the focus (of course we can play the >semantics game), But i think trying to think of triggers like cases is >only asking for confusion in working with these languages.
Why? 'Trigger' is just a case marked by a preposition. But if you only consider as "cases" those marked by bound morphemes (like Latin and Greek), then we are left with the need for a label for the general concept that in some occasions is marked by bound case affixes, in other by unbound case adpositions and in others by mere word order. Limiting the label "case" to just one particular occurrence of the concept doesn't help in realizing that we're dealing with one same linguistic phenomenon here, though presented under different 'disguises'.
>I don't know, maybe i just *get* it, but the way triggers are used seems >easy to me, and i never see why they're so confusing to lots of other >people. > >In other words, don't try to think of it in terms of what you know of >Indo-European languages. It just won't work and will confuse the hell out >of you. Keep it simple.
Where did you see any attempt from my part to reduce the thing to Indo-European grammar? I think I've done precisely the contrary: to go beyond European assumptions and generalize the concepts of case and voice so as to cover the different occurences of the same notion in non-IE languages, and thus make evident that things like "trigger" are not unique grammatical notions unconnected to other grammatical phenomena in other languages, but just the particular manifestation in that language of the general linguistic phenomena of case and voice. Cheers, Javier