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Re: THEORY: Morphosyntactic Alignment (again?), and Milewski

From:Eldin Raigmore <eldin_raigmore@...>
Date:Wednesday, May 17, 2006, 22:19
On Tue, 16 May 2006 18:13:10 -0400, Jim Henry <jimhenry1973@...>
wrote:

>On 5/16/06, Eldin Raigmore <eldin_raigmore@...> wrote: >>On Mon, 15 May 2006 11:22:43 -0400, Jim Henry >>><jimhenry1973@...> wrote: > ><snip much goodness> >
[er]
>>The four of "my" types that _couldn't_ be covered by any of Milewski's six >>types, look to be (er.xi), (er.xii), (er.xiii), and (er.xiv). >> >>I would, therefore, be very interested in any natlang which attests to one >>of them.
[JH]
>I suspect the reason they don't fit any of Milewski's >types is that he is by default assigning the unmarked >one of genitive or construct to the least-marked of >the theta role cases - nominative or ergative.
[er] I figured it was probably something like that. I just wish I knew more precisely and with better certainty. But few mediums around here specialize in linguistics, or in talking to deceased Polish linguists. [JH]
>In my analysis (such as it is) I would not assign >the unmarked one to any particular case, and thus >I would collapse some your types together: e.g., >your v and ix I would both describe as: > >A=S (nominative), O (accusative), G (genitive), C is unmarked > >and similarly with the others that have a distinct G >but conflate C with A or O, and those that have >distinct C but conflate G with A or O. > >Of course this analysis wouldn't work for a language >that really has a construct state identical to a >particular oblique case and also has a distinct genitive, >or vice versa; but if there are any such natlangs >I don't know about them. As far as I know >the construct state as such is attested only in >the Semitic language family (see below), and there >construct state is orthogonal to case.
[er] I believe it was Akkadian; at any rate the very first Semitic language I looked at specifically for the purpose of investigating "construct state", was indeed analyzed has having _both_ a genitive _and_ a "construct state", by that author. (I think if you look back at "Carsten's Birthday" in the archives, you may see where someone referenced that language.) AFAICR no other Semitic language I looked at had a genitive; or at least, AFAICR no other language I looked at that had a "construct state" had a genitive. [er]
>>ObConLang: I would also be interested in any conlang which attests to one >>of them.
[snip] [JH]
>>>My gjâ-zym-byn is fluid-S active, with a variety of >>>genitive postpositions for specific relationships >>>(possession, ownership, entity-attribute, part-whole, >>>authorship, kinship...), and no construct state. >>>As a fluid-S language I don't think it fits into Milewski's typology at >>>all. >.......... >>>There are at least three postpositions that can >>>mark the subject of a sentence
[er]
>>_That_ is _very_ _interesting_!
[JH]
>>>(depending on animacy and volitionality) >>>and at least six that can mark the object of a >>>transitive verb,
[er]
>>That is interesting.
[JH]
>>>plus several others that can mark the predicate of a >>>subject noun when there is no verb.
[er]
>>That sounds like the kind of phenomenon Milewski would have talked about; >>unfortunately I can't figure out what he would have said about it. >>At any rate, it's both interesting in its own right, and right on-topic >>for this post.
[JH]
>See >http://www.pobox.com/~jimhenry/gzb/grammar.htm#section5 >for details. Feel free to inquire onlist or offlist >if any part of it isn't clear.
[er] It's very clear. I have questions about why one or two pairs of the cases you've marked as different, aren't the same case instead; but I'll ask offlist. [JH]
>>>One of my oldest conlangs, Pliv-Rektek, had both a >>>genitive case and what I then called a >>>contra-genitive, not having heard of the >>>term "construct state".
[er]
>>Is "construct state" a "case", as it seems at the moment? Or is it >>like "definite" and "indefinite", whatever they are?
[JH]
>I treated the contra-genitive like a case in Pliv-Rektek, >but according to this Wikipedia article, > >http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Status_constructus > >the construct state in Arabic and Hebrew is a >kind of definiteness marking, not a case.
[er] I'd love to know how they know that. I'd love to know how certain and how accurate they are about that. [JH]
>I don't know if there is anything similar in other >natlangs outside the Semitic family. The >Wikipedia article mentions a "parallel" case >in Irish which on close examination is not >parallel at all.
>Jim Henry >http://www.pobox.com/~jimhenry
Thanks, Jim. eldin