Re: Losing languages ...
From: | Adam Walker <carrajena@...> |
Date: | Wednesday, September 24, 2003, 22:28 |
--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Wed, Sep 24, 2003 at 04:05:09PM -0400, John Cowan
> wrote:
> > Mark J. Reed scripsit:
> >
> > > Ditto here. In my case, I only use "the both"
> when both = all; that is,
> > > there are only two, and I talked to all two of
> them. Whereas I could
> > > use "both" without "the" even if it was an
> incomplete set:
Well, my suage varries a bit here.
If you asked me, "Have you seen John and Mark?" I
could answer, "I've seen both of them," or "I've seen
the both of them." But in the first case ("both"
only) I might have seen Mark one place/time and John
another. But if I said "the both" then I'd mean I saw
them simultaneously.
Adam
=====
Il prori ul pa雝veju fi dji atexindu mutu madji
fached. -- Carrajena proverb