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Re: Losing languages ...

From:Adam Walker <carrajena@...>
Date:Wednesday, September 24, 2003, 22:28
--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote:
> On Wed, Sep 24, 2003 at 04:05:09PM -0400, John Cowan > wrote: > > Mark J. Reed scripsit: > > > > > Ditto here. In my case, I only use "the both" > when both = all; that is, > > > there are only two, and I talked to all two of > them. Whereas I could > > > use "both" without "the" even if it was an > incomplete set:
Well, my suage varries a bit here. If you asked me, "Have you seen John and Mark?" I could answer, "I've seen both of them," or "I've seen the both of them." But in the first case ("both" only) I might have seen Mark one place/time and John another. But if I said "the both" then I'd mean I saw them simultaneously. Adam ===== Il prori ul pa&#38621;veju fi dji atexindu mutu madji fached. -- Carrajena proverb