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Re: Novel ConGrammar

From:Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...>
Date:Tuesday, September 28, 2004, 10:08
The Romance languages of course use an indicative future tense in some
situations, and in other (more) uncertain conditions use a subjunctive
tense (either subjunctive present or subjunctive future if any romance
language still has a future subjunctive). Would the distinction be
similar? Although the difference between the use of the indicative
future and subjunctive does not seem to be a matter of definite versus
indefinite future time:

iré
ir-é
go-fut.1st.sing
I will go (in the future... time not necessarily specified)

Vete antes de que llegue Juan
Ve-te antes de que lleg-e Juan
go.imp-you.familiar before of that arrive-3rd.pres.subj Juan
Go before Juan arrives (in future but uncertain... Juan might never arrive)

I know the second example at least isn't perfect... but my brain
suddenly emptied lol and my Spanish is rusty. I wouldn't even attempt to
give an example in French, because it'd be truly awful.

>Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>: > > > > >>> indefinate future (farther than one can think) >>> definate future (fore-sight & planning) >>> >>> >>I fail to see how the future can ever be definite. Foresight & planning >>can do much to increase the likelihood of a situation - but it can never >>be definite. >> >> > >Sounds like the tense for oracular utterances. Or for performatives relating to >the future ("hereby I declare that you will be Mayor of Junkville from the 23rd >of October!"). > > Andreas > > >