Re: Novel ConGrammar
From: | Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, September 28, 2004, 10:08 |
The Romance languages of course use an indicative future tense in some
situations, and in other (more) uncertain conditions use a subjunctive
tense (either subjunctive present or subjunctive future if any romance
language still has a future subjunctive). Would the distinction be
similar? Although the difference between the use of the indicative
future and subjunctive does not seem to be a matter of definite versus
indefinite future time:
iré
ir-é
go-fut.1st.sing
I will go (in the future... time not necessarily specified)
Vete antes de que llegue Juan
Ve-te antes de que lleg-e Juan
go.imp-you.familiar before of that arrive-3rd.pres.subj Juan
Go before Juan arrives (in future but uncertain... Juan might never arrive)
I know the second example at least isn't perfect... but my brain
suddenly emptied lol and my Spanish is rusty. I wouldn't even attempt to
give an example in French, because it'd be truly awful.
>Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>:
>
>
>
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>>> indefinate future (farther than one can think)
>>> definate future (fore-sight & planning)
>>>
>>>
>>I fail to see how the future can ever be definite. Foresight & planning
>>can do much to increase the likelihood of a situation - but it can never
>>be definite.
>>
>>
>
>Sounds like the tense for oracular utterances. Or for performatives relating to
>the future ("hereby I declare that you will be Mayor of Junkville from the 23rd
>of October!").
>
> Andreas
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>