Re: Is it necessary to distinguish inclusiveness in possessive markers?

--- Joe <joe@...> wrote:

> I suppose part of it is a natural result of
> hijacking number
> distinctions for politeness distinctions.
> Sometimes.  After people
> started to get all polite to everyone, the
> singular just vanished, I suppose.
I don't know. French did the politeness thing (as
did Spanish) and kept the different forms.
English never did the politeness thing properly
(we did it sort of half assed for a while and
kind of gave up) yet most dialects still lost the
distinction.

> To be etymologically correct, perhaps
> 'y'one' would make more sense.  ;-)
:)

Padraic.


=====
blaženi ništii duxom&#1100; &#283;ko t&#283;x&#1098; est&#1098; c&#283;sar&#1100;stvo
nebes&#1100;skoe!
    -- Mt.5:3

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