Re: Is it necessary to distinguish inclusiveness in possessive markers?

--- John Cowan <cowan@...> wrote:
> Costentin Cornomorus scripsit:
>
> > English never did the politeness thing
> properly
> > (we did it sort of half assed for a while and
> > kind of gave up) yet most dialects still lost
> the
> > distinction.
>
> That's because the distinction (though not the
> actual words) was
> borrowed from French: OE shows no trace of it.
I mean the s/pl distinction (i.e., loss of
"thou"). Should have made that clear.

Padraic.



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