Re: Genitive of apposition
| From: | H. S. Teoh <hsteoh@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, February 16, 2004, 0:30 |
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On Sat, Feb 14, 2004 at 10:10:08PM -0500, Mark J. Reed wrote:
> How widespread is this feature? English has it (e.g. "the land of Shin'ar",
> another excerpt from the handy-dandy Babel text). Does Cl. Latin use the
> genitive this way (the Vulgate version of the verse in the Babel text
> doesn't)? The Romance languages? Other Germanic languages? Other I-E?
> Non I-E?
[snip]
I believe (classical/koine) Greek has it too. Can't think of any examples
off-hand, though.
T
--
Never ascribe to malice that which is adequately explained by incompetence.
-- Napoleon Bonaparte