Re: [T] -> [f] (was: Chinese Dialect Question)
From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
Date: | Tuesday, October 7, 2003, 14:38 |
On Tue, Oct 07, 2003 at 06:31:47AM +0100, Ray Brown wrote:
> That's why I said "How so?" It was meant as a genuine question (no sarcasm,
> irony or whatever).
Yeah, I didn't think you were being sarcastic. Anyway, I didn't mean that
historical change was literally different from current change; just that
they feel like different phenomena to me, subjectively.
> Linguistic evolution happens a lot quicker than biological evolution.
Sure - generations instead of millions of years. But from the point of
view of a single person's lifetime, both time periods are similarly
large. 1, 2, many. :)
> The 'great vowel shift' of English seems to have occurred within
> a couple generations in the south of England during Tudor times -
> and that was a greater change than [T] --> [f].
True enough. Drastic as all get-out. If only it had happened *before*
the spelling was standardized. :)
> As for [T] --> [f], it appears to have already been underway in the 19th
> century and now in the 21st cent. it's still, apparently, only a regional
> phenomenon. I suspect established spelling, education and the growing use
> of an English Koine as a global auxiliary language will prevent the change
> ever becoming complete.
Yeah, I think at least international standard English will be relatively
frozen henceforth. But what do you mean by "an English Koine"? I thought
Koine was Greek.
-Mark
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