Re: [T] -> [f] (was: Chinese Dialect Question)
| From: | Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...> |
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| Date: | Saturday, October 4, 2003, 11:59 |
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On Sat, Oct 04, 2003 at 07:22:24AM +0100, Ray Brown wrote:
> Quite why Mark can't imagine the falling together of /f/ and /T/ to just
> [f] (and /v/ and /D/ to /v/), I don't know.
I can *imagine* it easily enough - I just wasn't aware of it. :)
And I've been conditioned through my elite-speaker prescriptivist
education to regard it as an error committed by the ignorant. :)
> The change also occurred in pre-Latin
Oh, sure, but that's a historical change. Seeing it happening
"in real time" in one's own language is different.
-Mark
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