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And how's about "periphony"? (was: Apophony?)

From:Raymond A. Brown <raybrown@...>
Date:Wednesday, April 28, 1999, 5:29
At 9:45 pm -0400 27/4/99, Tim Smith wrote:
>At 10:20 PM 4/27/99 +0100, Raymond A. Brown wrote: >>........... - Isn't it just >>a 'Graecizing' of the German word? >> >>Ab- I suppose is 'translated' apo- . Both prefixes can mean 'away (from)' >>and both are derived from a common PIE ancestor. >>And -laut is rendered as '-phony'!
> >I just found "apophony" in _The Oxford Concise Dictionary of Linguistics_ by >P.H. Matthews (Oxford University Press, 1997, ISBN 0-19-280008-6) (which I >just bought; this is the first time I've actually used it). It gives a >one-word definition: " = ablaut".
So I guessed right ;) Thanks Tim! And at 2:54 am +0200 28/4/99, P. M. ARKTAYG wrote: ......
> >Are you all kidding?! >>From my "Encyklopedia je;zykoznawstwa ogo'lnego" (Encyclopaedia of general >linguistics):
etc. Not at all - it seems the German word is still more common than the Greek calque in the English-speaking world. Indeed, P.M.Arktayg's description of the IE phenomena is what people like me have known as Ablaut for most of their lives. But if the German word is being discarded for an 'internationally' Greek-formed calque, has the same happened to that other vowel modification 'umlaut'? The Greek prefix which is closest in meaning to German um- is 'peri'. So has the good ol' familiar 'umlaut' also become "periphony"? Just wondering. Ray.