Re: Another OT question: singular of "epagomenae"
|From:||R A Brown <ray@...>|
|Date:||Friday, December 23, 2005, 20:40|
Mark J. Reed wrote:
> On 12/23/05, *R A Brown* <email@example.com
> <mailto:ray@...>> wrote:
> Spot on! It's a Latinized version of a Greek borrowing, which is quite
> common practice in English.
> Was it borrowed first from Greek into Latin and then from Latin into
> English, or was it borrowed directly from Greek into English but treated
> as Latin?
The word is not attested in Classical Latin. I suspect it was borrowed
strait from Greek, but Latinized in the way that borrowings from Greek
> It is actually a passive participle in Greek
> and is feminine because it agrees with the word for 'day' which, if
> context is clear, can be omitted (or "understood"):
> hai epagomenai [he:merai] = the intercalated [days]
> he: epagomene: [he:mera:] = the intercalated [day]
> Ah! In the original Egyptian calendar the epagomenal period was
> nameless (although the individual days eventually acquired names), but
> by the time the Copts adopted it the period was treated as a short 13th
> month named "Epagomene:". That must have originated from referring to
> them as "epagomenal [day] 1, epagomenal [day] 2", etc., which got
> re-analyzed with "epagomenal" as the name of the month.
Presumably - the Greek word for month was masculine (meis, [gen.]
me:nos). It looks as tho the Copts adopted the Greek feminine singular,
re-analyzing it in the sort of way you suggest.
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